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Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Reliable Exam Pattern | Real MCCQE Exam Dumps

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Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Part 1 Exam Sample Questions (Q26-Q31):

NEW QUESTION # 26
A 25-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 1, aborta 0, gave birth to a newborn who is hypotonic with a large protruding tongue and brachycephaly. The newborn has a single palmar crease bilaterally and short, broad hands with a curved fifth digit. These features best support a clinical diagnosis of which one of the following?

A. Prader-Willi syndrome.
B. Trisomy 21.
C. Congenital hypothyroidism.
D. Fetal alcohol syndrome.
E. Turner syndrome.

Answer: B

Explanation:
This constellation of features-hypotonia, macroglossia, brachycephaly, single palmar crease, short broad hands with clinodactyly-is classic for Down syndrome (Trisomy 21).
Toronto Notes 2023 - Pediatrics, "Genetic Syndromes":
"Trisomy 21 features include hypotonia, upslanting palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, flat nasal bridge, brachycephaly, macroglossia, single palmar crease, and clinodactyly." MCCQE1 Objectives (Pediatrics > 78-3: Congenital and Genetic Disorders):
"Candidates must recognize key dysmorphic features associated with common genetic syndromes including Trisomy 21." Prader-Willi and congenital hypothyroidism may have hypotonia but lack the full phenotypic pattern. Turner syndrome is seen in females with short stature and webbed neck. Fetal alcohol syndrome presents with smooth philtrum and microcephaly.
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NEW QUESTION # 27
A 14-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department with a 20-minute history of difficulty breathing that started during a school assembly. She has had similar symptoms 3 times in the last 2 weeks. These episodes develop rapidly and resolve gradually over several minutes. She reports tingling in her fingers and toes. On examination, her vital signs are as follows:
Blood pressure
120/80 mm Hg
Heart rate
100/min
Respiratory rate
22/min
Oxygen saturation on room air
95%
Temperature
36.9 °C, orally
Apart from mildly dilated pupils, her examination is otherwise normal. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
B. Asthma
C. Pericarditis
D. Panic attack
E. Cocaine use

Answer: D

Explanation:
This teenager presents with acute-onset dyspnea, paresthesias, and normal physical findings, consistent with a panic attack. Panic attacks often mimic cardiopulmonary pathology but are marked by symptoms like hyperventilation, tingling in the extremities, palpitations, and subjective air hunger with normal vitals and oxygenation.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry:
"Panic attacks are characterized by sudden onset of intense fear or discomfort, accompanied by somatic symptoms such as dyspnea, paresthesias, tachycardia, and fear of losing control." MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-3: Anxiety Disorders):
"Candidates must recognize panic attacks based on clinical features and differentiate them from cardiopulmonary conditions." Normal O2 saturation and physical exam rule out asthma or pericarditis. Cocaine use would present with more systemic toxicity. PSVT would cause consistent tachycardia.

NEW QUESTION # 28
A 27-year-old woman presents to her family physician's office and states that she is pregnant and would like to be referred for an abortion. She is at approximately 9 weeks' gestation by dates. The family physician has personal conscience-based objections to the procedure. Which one of the following would be the best next step for this physician?

A. Refer the patient to another physician
B. Ask the patient to return in 2 weeks to give her time to consider her options
C. Explain their personal views about therapeutic abortion to the patient
D. Recommend that the patient consider adoption

Answer: A

Explanation:
Physicians in Canada who have conscientious objections to procedures such as abortion are legally and ethically required to make an effective referral to another provider or service that can offer the treatment. The provider must not delay access to care.
Toronto Notes 2023 - ELOM, "Conscientious Objection":
"A physician who objects to providing a service for reasons of conscience must make an effective referral to another provider or agency." MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > Professionalism > 90-1):
"Candidates must recognize the obligation to refer patients for services they themselves will not provide due to personal or religious beliefs." Delaying care (C), imposing personal beliefs (A), or suggesting alternatives like adoption (D) is inappropriate and may violate patient autonomy.

NEW QUESTION # 29
A 62-year-old woman is referred to your clinic for evaluation of hypercalcemia. She has a history of hypertension and vitamin D deficiency. Her medications include hydrochlorothiazide and vitamin D supplements. Laboratory investigations are as follows:
* Calcium: 2.72 mmol/L (#)
* Phosphate: 0.9 mmol/L (#)
* Parathyroid hormone (PTH): 0.9 pmol/L (#)
* 25-hydroxy vitamin D: 80 nmol/L (normal)
Which one of the following is the best next step?

A. Start calcitriol
B. Order 24-hour urine calcium
C. Switch to a different antihypertensive medication
D. Order serum protein electrophoresis and urine for light chains
E. Refer for consideration of parathyroidectomy

Answer: D

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
This patient has hypercalcemia with suppressed PTH, ruling out primary hyperparathyroidism. The differential includes malignancy-associated hypercalcemia, vitamin D intoxication, and medications. Given the low PTH and normal vitamin D level, malignancy (e.g., multiple myeloma) is a leading concern. Serum protein electrophoresis and urine for Bence-Jones proteins (light chains) are appropriate next steps.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Endocrinology, "Hypercalcemia":
"PTH-independent hypercalcemia should prompt investigation for malignancy. Multiple myeloma is a common cause in older adults-order SPEP and UPEP." MCCQE1 Objectives (Endocrinology > 37-1: Calcium Disorders):
"Candidates must investigate non-PTH mediated hypercalcemia, including consideration of multiple myeloma." A (urine calcium) helps in familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia, but this is unlikely given low PTH. B (calcitriol) would worsen hypercalcemia. C is inappropriate because PTH is suppressed. D (changing HCTZ) may help, but malignancy must be ruled out first.

NEW QUESTION # 30
A 39-year-old woman comes to the office for a periodic health examination. She reports that her father had a recent diagnosis of breast cancer (at age 62 years) and that a paternal aunt had ovarian cancer in her early 40s.
The results of mammography are normal. Which one of the following is the most appropriate recommendation for this patient?

A. Random fine-needle sampling of the breasts.
B. Annual mammography starting at age 50 years.
C. Prophylactic tamoxifen therapy.
D. Genetic screening.
E. Bilateral mastectomy.

Answer: D

Explanation:
This patient has a family history of both male breast cancer (father) and early-onset ovarian cancer (aunt), which are red flags for BRCA1/2 mutations. Genetic counseling and BRCA testing are the appropriate next steps to stratify cancer risk and guide screening and prevention.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Oncology, "Breast Cancer Risk" Section:
"BRCA testing is recommended for individuals with a strong family history of breast or ovarian cancer, particularly if involving male relatives or early-onset cases." MCCQE1 Objectives (Population Health > 97-5: Screening and Prevention):
"Candidates must identify high-risk individuals who require genetic counseling and screening beyond population guidelines." Tamoxifen (A) and prophylactic mastectomy (E) are only considered after confirming mutation status. Annual screening starting at 50 (D) is for average-risk women. Fine-needle sampling (C) is not a screening tool.

NEW QUESTION # 31
......

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